Ibn Rajab records this incident:
"Al-Awzā‘ī would count the position of those that held concession with regards to singing from the people of Madinah to be from the slips of the scholars, that which is commanded to be avoided, and impermissible to be acted upon."
Arabic source:
وكان الأوزاعي يعد قول من رخص في الغناء من أهل المدينة من زلات العلماء التي يؤمر باجتنابها وينهى عن الاقتداء بها
(Nuzhat al Asma Fi Mas'alat al Sama)
Al-Dhahabi records it too. Its pretty much everywhere in Islamic history books.
In fact, Awza'i later sends a letter to Umar Ibn Abdul Aziz and says Music is haram and doesn't even give weight to the other opinion.
Why would such a major salaf like Awza'i who is known to be an expert in Sunnah & differences of opinion reject its validity?? Unless that opinion was erroneous in the first place and was never a valid ikhtilaf and opposed a previous consensus.
The salaf would never rebuke an opinion if it was valid would they?
If you argue that maybe he himself made a mistake then that'd be incorrect because how come no one critiqued his claim on this approach? On the contrary we have multiple scholars critiquing ahl al Madina for holding this position and even the official position of the Maliki madhab rejects the position of ahl al Madina.
Makes you question all those laymen claiming Music's validity using self-ijtihad & far fetched arguments using unclear statements from the sahaba that they permitted Music.
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