So recently ive been learning about zipfs law, and i was wondering if the Quran follows this sort of principle. I've seen people say that it does follow the law/principle, but zipfs law is more a statistic phenomenon rather than a linguistic one. I've also seen people argue the Quran doesn't follow zipfs law.
Hypothetically, even if the Quran does follow this principle, would that necessarily undermine the Quran?
I have a habit of overthinking things, but if someone more educated on this topic could help, it would be much appreciated
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