I'm sorry if the question may sound ignorant but I'm really confused about this and need islamic replies.
I've read that it's only allowed if the other wife is a widow or someone that can't find a husband.
While all sheikhs I've heard say that there are no circumstances and if a man wishes he can go and marry, and he doesn't need to tell his first wife. They all say he should treat both equally and must have the physical and financial capabilities.
I'm really confused. And what's the evidence that a man doesn't have to tell his first wife? So a guy can just marry any woman he likes just because?
I'm really confused because the Ayah that allows polygamy clearly states that:
" and if you fear that you shall not deal justly with the orphans, marry women of your choice, two or three or four, but if you fear that you won't be able to deal justly with them, then only one, or what your right hand possess, that will be more suitable to prevent you from doing injustice"
So, a man must fear that he won't be treat the orphans justly,right? But why i don't hear about this? I'm really confused? So orphans aren't necessary? Then why are they mentioned in the ayah? I'm so confused, my brain will explode. Can someone please explain to me what are the precautions for polygamy? Or is it freely done. Thanks for reading this. Salam.
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