Sorry if I'm posting this in the wrong subreddit. This question came to me just now and as I'm not theologically or historically grounded enough to answer it, I wonder what you think? As we know, Christianity was perverted to justify many atrocities, would Islam have had a stronger resistance to perversion of the faith? I hope my question makes sense, anyway I realize there are no definite answers (probably?) but I thought it would be an interesting discussion for those among you who are smart enough to come up with a good answer as I am sadly not. And if I am posting in the wrong subreddit I thank you for redirecting me appropriately.

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