Does science show that it is not possible for that realm pre-big bang to have always existed. Or can we also infer that through logic that this is not possible in that the realm pre-big bang essentially always existed. I know this may be more of a philosophical question rather than a scientific one. But I'm willing to accept views dependent on either subject.

I just want to deconstruct an argument that a friend of mine made and I don't want to say anything that could essentially be wrong.

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