Hello, everyone.
I am not muslim and had a question about slavery. I know these types of questions come up a lot, but dont worry I read the FAQ and I know pretty much the basis of the idea. I just have a few issues.
So, a man is allowed to have sex with his female slaves, even if he is married, right. And on the FAQ, it says that this was allowed because, “these women were living with these men and sexual relationships tend to spontaneously, it's human nature.”
I dont understand why they cant just control themselves? I just feel like that whole “human nature” thing is such a bad argument because, in that case why arent women allowed to have sex with their slaves? Shes living in close quarters with a male slave then spontaneity might happen and they might have sexual relations - thats human nature. I KNOW that women cant do this because of paternity, and thats a perfectly valid reason. But I feel like if women have to resist their temptations then men should have to too. It just doesnt make sense to me that your relgion puts such an emphasis on premartial sex, yet has this loophole for only men.
Secondly, what if a (financially independent) unmarried woman owns a male slave. Then could they have sex? I watched a video where a Palestinian-Jordanian cleric Shaykh Mashhoor bin Hasan Al-Salman was asked this question and he said, “No. A woman may marry her slave though, but then he becomes a free man and her master."
Like what????? He becomes her MASTER? So what, shes the slave now??? Why cant they just have sex without marriage like a man would be able to with his female slaves? Shes not married so its not like paternity is an issue here.
I also dont understand how a slave could consent to sex, but thats a whole different story. Sorry if these questions sound dumb, i was just wondering.
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from Islam https://ift.tt/2Xxtqay
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