I am looking to convince a few non-Muslims related to this question. I haven't really found compelling philosophical answers to the objections. How can one argue against the position that sharia is NOT a moral code, and that it is not necessary for morality. Morality, therefore, has to be secular.
One objection is that it is disconsonant with ordinary morality. For instance, most people would not become disgusted if they see others engaging in social drinking and minor gambling, like a friendly one-hundred dollar bet on the outcome of the experiments of the LHC. Those seem like benign activities that few people would object to, since it does not cause much harm. But it is not even those two salient issues, which seem to be minor, it seems that a good Muslim would have her life controlled in many trivial respects, especially the issue of whom you can interact with (e.g. gender mixing). One would be denied friendly interactions and company with many people. Many Muslims would object if I entered the house of a fellow male student to discuss a paper on Locke's views on free will that he is working on.
Using divine command theory doesn't work as a means of setting a standard for "objective morality". It is hard to deny that atheists have moral judgments that are not influenced by the sharia. Many people consider their judgments to be real moral judgments. Also, atheists can be the subject of moral admiration, even though they do not believe in God. A professor told me that religion doesn't contribute to morality, and I had to concur with him because I could not find any counterargument.
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